Description

For learners studying for CompTIA A+ 220-1202 (V15) Core 2
What you'll learn
Practice pack content
Domain 1 - Operating Systems
Domain 2 – Security
Domain 3 – Software Troubleshooting
Domain 4 – Operational Procedures
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Try 3 A+ 220-1201 (V15) Core 2 practice questions
Choose an answer, explore the explanation, and see why the other options are less suitable. Three short scenarios. No sign-in required.
Operating SystemsObjective 1.4 · Given a scenario, use the appropriate Microsoft command-line tools.
1. Checking a Windows IP configuration
A Windows PC cannot reach resources outside its local network. The technician first wants to view the computer's current IPv4 address, subnet mask, and default gateway before making any changes. Which command should the technician use?
- netstat
- nslookup
- tracert
- ipconfig
Answer and full explanation
Correct answer: D — ipconfig.
Why D is correct
The ipconfig command displays the Windows computer's current TCP/IP configuration. Used without additional parameters, it can show the IPv4 address, subnet mask, and default gateway for network adapters. Those are the exact values the technician wants to inspect before changing the configuration. This makes ipconfig the most direct first command for the stated task. Other networking commands can help later, but they answer different troubleshooting questions.
Why the other options are less suitable
- A — netstat:
netstatis useful for examining network connections, listening ports, and related protocol statistics. It is not the primary command for displaying the adapter's IPv4 address, subnet mask, and default gateway. - B — nslookup:
nslookupis used to query DNS and troubleshoot name resolution. It could become useful if DNS is suspected, but it does not directly provide the requested local IP configuration values. - C — tracert:
tracerttraces the route packets take toward a destination. It can help locate a path problem after basic configuration is checked, but it does not directly display the current adapter configuration.
Key takeaway: Use ipconfig when you need to inspect a Windows system's current IP addressing information.
Read two more sample questions
SecurityObjective 2.2 · Given a scenario, configure and apply basic Microsoft Windows OS security settings.
2. Protecting a lost company laptop
A company issues a Windows laptop to an employee who travels frequently. The requirement is to protect the data on the entire operating-system volume if the laptop or drive is stolen, without configuring encryption separately for individual files. Which Windows feature best meets the requirement?
- Encrypting File System (EFS)
- User Account Control (UAC)
- BitLocker
- Windows Defender Firewall
Answer and full explanation
Correct answer: C — BitLocker.
Why C is correct
BitLocker is the Windows feature intended to encrypt entire volumes and protect data at rest. That directly matches the requirement to protect the operating-system volume if the laptop or drive is lost or stolen. It operates at the volume level, so the technician does not need to select individual files for encryption. The Core 2 security objectives explicitly include BitLocker among Windows OS security settings. For a mobile company device containing sensitive data, full-volume protection is the decisive clue.
Why the other options are less suitable
- A — Encrypting File System: EFS can encrypt selected files and folders on NTFS volumes. It may be appropriate for targeted file protection, but the scenario specifically asks for whole-volume protection without per-file configuration.
- B — User Account Control: UAC helps control elevation of administrative privileges and reduces unintended system changes. It does not encrypt the operating-system volume or protect offline data if the drive is removed.
- D — Windows Defender Firewall: The firewall controls network traffic according to configured rules. It is useful for host network protection, but it does not encrypt data stored on the laptop.
Key takeaway: BitLocker protects Windows volumes at rest; choose it when the requirement is device or drive loss protection.
Operational ProceduresObjective 4.2 · Given a scenario, apply change management procedures.
3. Preparing for a software change
An IT team has tested an update to a business application and scheduled it for a maintenance window. Management requires a documented method to return the system to its previous working state if the deployment causes an outage. What should be prepared before implementation?
- A rollback plan
- An end-user acceptance record
- A knowledge-base article for future incidents
- A certificate of hardware destruction
Answer and full explanation
Correct answer: A — A rollback plan.
Why A is correct
A rollback plan defines how to reverse a change if implementation creates unacceptable problems. The requirement is specifically to restore the application to its previous working state after a failed deployment. CompTIA lists a rollback plan as part of documented business processes used in change management. Preparing it before implementation reduces uncertainty during recovery and gives the team a predetermined path back to a known state. It therefore addresses the stated failure scenario directly.
Why the other options are less suitable
- B — End-user acceptance record: End-user acceptance can confirm whether a change meets user requirements after testing or implementation. It does not describe the technical or procedural steps for reversing a failed deployment.
- C — Knowledge-base article: A knowledge-base article can document useful support information and lessons learned. It may be created after the change, but it does not provide the required recovery path before implementation.
- D — Certificate of hardware destruction: A destruction certificate is associated with disposal and data-destruction processes. It has no role in restoring a software application after an unsuccessful change.
Key takeaway: A planned change should include a defined way to reverse it when implementation fails.
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Requirements
- CompTIA recommends 12 months of hands-on experience in an IT support specialist job role; familiarity with desktop operating systems, security settings, software troubleshooting, and day-to-day support procedures will help with these scenarios.
- If some Core 2 topics are unfamiliar, combine question practice with foundational study and your own exercises such as Windows administration, command-line troubleshooting, account security, malware-response workflows, backups, and basic change-management practice.
- You will need an internet-connected device, a current web browser, and an ExamsDigest account to use the online practice product; this requirement does not imply bundled offline access or a separate mobile application.
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These details describe CompTIA’s official A+ 220-1201 (V15) Core 2 exam.
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“I passed my CompTIA A+ exams recently, and the Core 2 practice questions helped me focus on Windows, security, and troubleshooting topics I still needed to review. The explanations were especially useful before exam day.”
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“The questions covered a good mix of operating systems, security, troubleshooting, and support procedures. Going through my incorrect answers made it much easier to see which Core 2 areas needed more study.”
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